What Bernanke doesn’t understand about deflation
Bernanke’s recent Jackson Hole speech didn’t contain one reference to the key force driving the American economy right now: private sector deleveraging (here’s the previous year’s speech for comparison’s sake). The reason the US economy is not recovering from this crisis is because all sectors of American society took on too much debt during the false boom of the last two decades, and they are now busily getting themselves out of debt any way they can.
Debt reduction is now the real story of the American economy, just as real story behind the apparent free lunch of the last two decades was rising debt. The secret that has completely eluded Bernanke is that aggregate demand is the sum of GDP plus the change in debt. So when debt is rising demand exceeds what it could be on the basis of earned incomes alone, and when debt is falling the opposite happens.
I’ve been banging the drum on this for years now, but it’s a hard idea to communicate because it’s so alien to the way most economists (and many people) think. For a start, it involves a redefinition of aggregate demand. Most economists are conditioned to think of commodity markets and asset markets as two separate spheres, but my definition lumps them together: aggregate demand is the sum of expenditure on goods and services, PLUS the net amount of money spent buying assets (shares and property) on the secondary markets. This expenditure is financed by the sum of what we earn from productive activities (largely wages and profits) PLUS the change in our debt levels. So total demand in the economy is the sum of GDP plus the change in debt.
I’ve recently developed a simple numerical example that makes this case easier to understand: imagine an economy with a nominal GDP of $1,000 billion which is growing at 10 percent a year, due to an inflation rate of 5 percent and a real growth rate of 5 percent, and in which private debt is $1,250 billion and is growing at 20% a year.
Aggregate private sector demand in this economy—expenditure on all markets, including asset markets—is therefore $1,250 billion: $1,000 billion from expenditure from income (GDP) and $250 billion from the change in debt. At the end of the year, private debt will be $1,500 billion. Expenditure is thus 20 percent above the level that could be financed by income alone.
Now imagine that the following year, the rate of growth of GDP continues at 10 percent, but the rate of growth of debt slows from 20 to 10 percent. GDP will have grown to $1,100 billion, while the increase in private debt this year will be $150 billion—10 percent of the initial $1,500 billion total and therefore $100 billion less than the $250 billion increase the year before.
Aggregate private sector demand in this economy will therefore be $1,250 billion, consisting of $1,100 billion from GDP and $150 billion from rising debt—exactly the same as the year before. But since inflation has been running at 5 percent, aggregate demand will be 5 percent lower than the year before in real terms. So simply stabilising the debt to GDP ratio results in a fall in demand in real terms, and some markets—commodities and/or assets—must take a hit.
Putting this example in a table, we get the following illustration:
| Variable/Year | Year 1 | Year 2 |
| Nominal GDP | 1000 | 1100 |
| Growth rate of Nominal GDP | 10% | 10% |
| Real growth rate | 5% | 5% |
| Inflation Rate | 5% | 5% |
| Private Debt | 1250 | 1500 |
| Growth rate of Private Debt | 20% | 10% |
| Change in Private Debt | 250 | 150 |
| Nominal Aggregate demand (GDP + Change in Debt) | 1250 | 1250 |
Notice that nominal aggregate demand remains constant across the two years–but this means that real output has to fall, since half of the recorded growth in nominal GDP is inflation. So even stabilising the debt to GDP ratio causes a fall in real aggregate demand. Some markets–whether they’re for goods and services or assets like shares and property–have to take a hit.
Now let’s apply this to the US economy for the last few years, in somewhat more detail. There are some rough edges to the following table—the year to year changes put some figures out of whack, and some change in debt is simply compounding of unpaid interest that doesn’t add to aggregate demand—but in the spirit of “I’d rather be roughly right than precisely wrong”, at your leisure please work your way through the table below.
Its key point can be grasped just by considering the GDP and the change in debt for the two years 2008 and 2010: in 2007-2008, GDP was $14.3 trillion while the change in private sector debt was $4 trillion, so aggregate private sector demand was $18.3 trillion. In calendar year 2009-10, GDP was $14.5 trillion, but the change in debt was minus $1.9 trillion, so that aggregate private sector demand was $12.6 trillion. The turnaround in two years in the change of debt has literally sucked almost $6 trillion out of the US economy.
| Variable\Year | 2006 | 2007 | 2008 | 2009 | 2010 |
| GDP | 12,915,600 | 13,611,500 | 14,337,900 | 14,347,300 | 14,453,800 |
| Change in Nominal GDP | 6.3% | 5.4% | 5.3% | 0.1% | 0.7% |
| Change in Real GDP | 2.7% | 2.4% | 2.5% | -1.9% | 0.1% |
| Inflation Rate | 4.0% | 2.1% | 4.3% | 0.0% | 2.6% |
| Private Debt | 33,196,817 | 36,553,385 | 40,596,586 | 42,045,481 | 40,185,976 |
| Debt Growth Rate | 9.6% | 10.1% | 11.1% | 3.6% | -4.4% |
| Change in Debt | 2,914,187 | 3,356,568 | 4,043,201 | 1,448,895 | -1,859,505 |
| GDP + Change in Private Debt | 15,829,787 | 16,968,068 | 18,381,101 | 15,796,195 | 12,594,295 |
| Change in Private Aggregate Demand | 0.0% | 7.2% | 8.3% | -14.1% | -20.3% |
| Government Debt | 6,556,391.0 | 6,893,467.0 | 7,321,592.0 | 8,615,051.0 | 10,167,585.0 |
| Change in Government Debt | 478,851.0 | 337,076.0 | 428,125.0 | 1,293,459.0 | 1,552,534.0 |
| GDP + Change in Total Debt | 16,308,638.0 | 17,305,144.0 | 18,809,226.0 | 17,089,654.0 | 14,146,829.0 |
| Change in Total Aggregate Demand | 0.0% | 6.1% | 8.7% | -9.1% | -17.2% |
That sucking sound will continue for many years, because the level of debt that was racked up under Bernanke’s watch, and that of his predecessor Alan Greenspan, was truly enormous. In the years from 1987, when Greenspan first rescued the financial system from its own follies, till 2009 when the US hit Peak Debt, the US private sector added $34 trillion in debt. Over the same period, the USA’s nominal GDP grew by a mere $9 trillion.
Ignoring this growth in debt—championing it even in the belief that the financial sector was being clever when in fact it was running a disguised Ponzi Scheme—was the greatest failing of the Federal Reserve and its many counterparts around the world.
Though this might beggar belief, there is nothing sinister in Bernanke’s failure to realize this: it’s a failing that he shares in common with the vast majority of economists. His problem is the theory he learnt in high school and university that he thought was simply “economics”—as if it was the only way one could think about how the economy operated. In reality, it was “Neoclassical economics”, which is just one of the many schools of thought within economics. In the same way that Christianity is not the only religion in the world, there are other schools of thought in economics. And just as different religions have different beliefs, so too do schools of thought within economics—only economists tend to call their beliefs “assumptions” because this sounds more scientific than “beliefs”.
Let’s call a spade a spade: two of the key beliefs of the Neoclassical school of thought are now coming to haunt Bernanke—because they are false. These are that the economy is (almost) always in equilibrium, and that private debt doesn’t matter.
One of Bernanke’s predecessors who also once believed these two things was Irving Fisher, and just like Bernanke, he was originally utterly flummoxed when the US economy collapsed from prosperity to Depression back in 1930. But ultimately he came around to a different way of thinking that he christened “The Debt Deflation Theory of Great Depressions” (Fisher 1933).
You would think Bernanke, as the alleged expert on the Great Depression—after all, that’s one of the main reasons he got the job as Chairman of the Federal Reserve—had read Fisher’s papers. And you’d be right. But the problem is that he didn’t understand them—and here we come back to the belief problem. The Great Depression forced Fisher—who was also a Neoclassical economist—to realize that the belief that the economy was always in equilibrium was false. When Bernanke read Fisher, he completely failed to grasp this point. Just as a religious scholar from, for example, the Hindu tradition might completely miss the key points in the Christian Bible, Bernanke didn’t even register how important abandoning the belief in equilibrium was to Fisher.
To know this, all you have to do is read Bernanke’s summary of Fisher in his Essays on the Great Depression:
The idea of debt-deflation goes back to Irving Fisher (1933). Fisher envisioned a dynamic process in which falling asset and commodity prices created pressure on nominal debtors, forcing them into distress sales of assets, which in turn led to further price declines and financial difficulties. His diagnosis led him to urge President Roosevelt to subordinate exchange-rate considerations to the need for reflation, advice that (ultimately) FDR followed.
Fisher’s idea was less influential in academic circles, though, because of the counterargument that debt-deflation represented no more than a redistribution from one group (debtors) to another (creditors). Absent implausibly large differences in marginal spending propensities among the groups, it was suggested, pure redistributions should have no significant macroeconomic effects. ” (Bernanke 2000, p. 24)
There’s no mention of disequilibrium there, and though Bernanke went on to try to develop the concept of debt-deflation, he did so while maintaining the belief in equilibrium. Compare this to Fisher himself on how important disequilibrium really is in the real world:
We may tentatively assume that, ordinarily and within wide limits, all, or almost all, economic variables tend, in a general way, toward a stable equilibrium… But the exact equilibrium thus sought is seldom reached and never long maintained. New disturbances are, humanly speaking, sure to occur, so that, in actual fact, any variable is almost always above or below the ideal equilibrium…
It is as absurd to assume that, for any long period of time, the variables in the economic organization, or any part of them, will “stay put,” in perfect equilibrium, as to assume that the Atlantic Ocean can ever be without a wave. (Fisher 1933, p. 339)
We might not be in such a pickle now if economics had started to become more of a science and less of a religion by following Fisher’s lead, and abandoning key beliefs when reality made a mockery of them. But instead neoclassical economics completely rebuilt its belief system after the Great Depression, and here we are again, once more experiencing the disconnect between neoclassical beliefs and economic reality.
For the record, here’s my “GDP plus change in debt” table for the 1930s, to give us some idea of what the next decade or so might hold if, once again, we repeat the mistakes of our predecessors.
| Variable\Year | 1929 | 1930 | 1931 | 1932 | 1933 | 1934 | 1935 |
| GDP | 103,600 | 91,200 | 76,500 | 58,700 | 56,400 | 66,000 | 73,300 |
| Change in Nominal GDP | 6.0% | -12.0% | -16.1% | -23.3% | -3.9% | 17.0% | 11.1% |
| Inflation Rate | -1.2% | 0.0% | -7.0% | -10.1% | -9.8% | 2.3% | 3.0% |
| Private Debt | 161,800 | 161,100 | 148,400 | 137,100 | 127,900 | 125,300 | 124,500 |
| Debt Growth Rate | 3.7% | -0.4% | -7.9% | -7.6% | -6.7% | -2.0% | -0.6% |
| Change in Debt | 5,700 | -700 | -12,700 | -11,300 | -9,200 | -2,600 | -800 |
| GDP + Change in Private Debt | 109,300 | 90,500 | 63,800 | 47,400 | 47,200 | 63,400 | 72,500 |
| Change in Private Aggregate Demand | 0.0% | -17.2% | -29.5% | -25.7% | -0.4% | 34.3% | 14.4% |
| Government Debt | 30,100 | 31,200 | 34,500 | 37,900 | 40,600 | 46,300 | 50,500 |
| Change in Government Debt | -100 | 1,100 | 3,300 | 3,400 | 2,700 | 5,700 | 4,200 |
| GDP + Change in Total Debt | 109,200 | 91,600 | 67,100 | 50,800 | 49,900 | 69,100 | 76,700 |
| Change in Total Aggregate Demand | 0.0% | -16.1% | -26.7% | -24.3% | -1.8% | 38.5% | 11.0% |
Bernanke, B. S. (2000). Essays on the Great Depression. Princeton, Princeton University Press.
Fisher, I. (1933). “The Debt-Deflation Theory of Great Depressions.” Econometrica
1(4): 337-357.
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#158
A bank won’t lend if they don’t have capital to cover, when they give you 1 million dollars to buy a house that’s -1m that must come out some account and that account has to have a positive balance.
#162
It can not create money instantaneously out of “thin air” but as time passes the money is deposited in a bank account and then becomes available for the banking system to loan again (and again).
Both of these and other similar statements are incorrect for the following reason.
PROOF…
In a $500,000 median house market, if I walk into a bank with my house title, and a job, I can borrow $400,000
The bank will intantaneously create a $400,000 loan account and a $400,000 chequebook deposit account at my request.
$400,000 credit money gets instantly created out of thin air’
*I’m borrowing my own deposit*
*My deposit was created by my loan*
*The money come out of thin air*
*My cheques will clear, they will be honoured*
If I write cheques these turn up as deposits in the 4 banks (the banking system) and the interbank lending system is used to balance the individual banks deposits.
If the median house was $250,000 the bank would advance $200,000
If I send a cheque to the USA then the international deposit balance is achieved is via the international credit market
Australia (via the banking system) has a net external debt of ~ $700 billion
From what little I do understand, modern Banks operate using a term called “liquidity management”. That is they make a loan first and then seek the means to support that through capital requirements / inter bank loans etc.
So excessive lending practices creates the need for greater leverage (rather than the other way round).
Also, without wishing to create too many other sparks flying around, I’d also say that derivates are a means of generating further credit:
http://www.zerohedge.com/article/jim-rickards-goldman-can-create-shorts-faster-europe-can-print-money
Peter Warburton has a very interesting take on this:
“What we see at present is a battle between the central banks and the collapse of the financial system fought on two fronts. On one front, the central banks preside over the creation of additional liquidity for the financial system in order to hold back the tide of debt defaults that would otherwise occur. On the other, they incite investment banks and other willing parties to bet against a rise in the prices of gold, oil, base metals, soft commodities or anything else that might be deemed an indicator of inherent value. Their objective is to deprive the independent observer of any reliable benchmark against which to measure the eroding value, not only of the US dollar, but of all fiat currencies.”
http://gata.org/node/8303
Hawkeye,
Yes banks use a concept called liquidity management, but that is not the definition. Yes new loans can be created this way, but in reality they are not.
The reason for this is a concept that really takes a long time to understand and its depth should never be underestimated. This concept also seems to be missing from the credit creation theory, although it is in essence what modern finance is all about := RISK.
If new loans were facilitated using liquidity management, ie then the liquidity risk would be huge, huge in the sense that the downside of running into liquidity trouble is insolvency. I can see there wouldn’t be many people who see this first hand, but any long term capital commitments are made only if that long term capital is there in the first place.
What PETER_W did not consider is whether or not that $400,000 is already sitting there or not. What I am fighting against is exactly this image presented, walking into a bank asking for a loan and then the bank manager goes out the back to the bank kitchen and uses it to cook up the equivalent in deposit credit.
I agree with ak and Brightspark, over time as a system there is clearly a feedback between debt and credit allowing for credit creation. But I disagree that it all happens in one direction, it’s just not that simple. Especially given that at transaction level exactly the opposite happens.
The fact that people interpret the credit creation theory to suggest that the credit is cooked up at the moment of loan inception, ie I walk into a bank and the bank cooks me some virtual money at my request maybe is a proof by contradiction. If we can show that this does not happen at transaction level does that mean that the theory is wrong. I say no, it is not wrong, but theory in finance should never be used to make exclusive conclusions. In finance you can have many, even conflicting theories happening all at the same time to some degree.
#182
What PETER_W did not consider is whether or not that $400,000 is already sitting there or not. What I am fighting against is exactly this image presented, walking into a bank asking for a loan and then the bank manager goes out the back to the bank kitchen and uses it to cook up the equivalent in deposit credit.
This is exactly how it happens
Come around one day and we can go to the local branch together and I will prove it.
Where do you think credit money comes from?
I walk in with an asset, a pen, and a pledge, result = money.
If what you say was true (the $400,000 was sitting there) then the banking system would not have a balanced balance sheet, i.e. My loan would result in…
Bank balance sheet… $400,000 loan = $800,000 deposit.
Your balance sheet is mathematical nonsense
#182 TITINT
Not only can I (via the bank) create $400,000 credit money at the stroke of a pen ‘out of thin air’, I can destroy $400,000 credit money by writing a cheque from my $400,000 deposit account and pay out the $400,000 loan account (and taking back the security/the house title)
No one does this though.
What people do is spend the new credit money into the economy to bid up the price of the 5% of the total housing market that turns over in sales each year.
The other 95% of houses that are not bought or sold each year become a higher priced asset that can be pledged for a larger amount of credit money at the bank.
The Australian economy is in a positive feedback loop of credit creates deposits money feedback loop.
Australia is being flooded with credit money that will destroy the purchase power of the AUD
Steven I have some real problems with your analysis here that I think that strongly impedes your message
1. Your statement “aggregate demand is the sum of GDP plus the change in debt”
Change in debt does not affect aggregate demand but is a component of it. In your simplified model a person borrowing and spending in excess of their income will always be offset by someone lending and spending less than their income.
This is not to say that the level of debt does not matter because the greater the level of borrowing the greater the level of income/demand generated via the credit multiplier effect.
I have to also say the credit multiplier effect (borrowing -spending – banking – relending) seems to have been discussed at length in the comments here but it does have to be pointed out there are limits to the multiplier effect – including the time to undertake the transactions and the need for the lending institution to hold some capital to cover outstanding loans.
Just a quick statement on lender capital and how it diminishes the credit multiplier effect to add to the discussion – If the lending institution thinks that 5% of loans are going to end up as bad debts then of the money that comes back in it will only relend 95% – this comes back and only 95% is relent – 90.25% of the original amount) in effect if my sums are correct – a new loan will have a maximum credit mutiplier effect of 20 times new credit.
2. Your statement “aggregate demand is the sum of expenditure on goods and services, PLUS the net amount of money spent buying assets (shares and property) on the secondary markets”
Money spent on such assets are mere wealth transfers not a part of income or demand generation as nothing is created. For every dollar spent on such assets someone receives a dollar.
This is also not to say that the price level of assets in the secondary market (eg shares and property) does not matter. The higher the price level in the secondary market the easier it is for the lending sector to make loans – based on asset security – which increases the effect of the credit multiplier. Asset security makes bigger loans possible and also reduces cost to bank capital on defaults.
In essence without your adjustments the results of your empirical analysis would still hold purely based on the expansion and contraction of the credit multiplier effect.
Thanks Michael,
I think it’s time I put another post up on the difference between an endogenous money world view and the standard one you elaborate here where savings are needed before lending can occur. If banks were mere intermediaries between savers and borrowers then your argument and the standard case would be true. but the banking system is a net originator of loans and deposits: it creates spending power without subtracting it from any agent’s current spending power.
If you haven’t yet read the Roving Cavaliers of Credit, please do so for a more complete statement of the endogenous money perspective.
“From what little I do understand, modern Banks operate using a term called “liquidity management”. That is they make a loan first and then seek the means to support that through capital requirements / inter bank loans etc”
hi hawkeye,
i think a distinction needs to be made between bank reserve requirments, and capital adequacy requirments.
the arguement that banks make loans first and then go looking for reserves after, is a reflection upon the american bank reserve requirment regime.
in oz, there are no reserve requirments.
at the risk of sounding like a broken record, banks arnt operationally constrained by reserves, or its liabilities, in order to create loan assetts. as BB has pointed out they are capital constrained, and they are constrained by their own risk weighting mechanisms.
the liquidity issue arises, due to the inelasticity of demand for bank reserves as a whole. when loan assetts get created, this alters the deposit base of the banking system. the deposit base has to be aquited against a government mandated reserve requirment.
the problem for banks, are that they find it very difficult to work out if they are in compliance at an individual transactional level at any given stage of the government mandated accounting period. and hence the central bank underwrites the liquidity demands of the payment system, as changes occure to the deposit base.
this underwritting, and the accounting mechanisms that accompany it, i think creates a considerable incentive for as you say, to make loans first, and find the reserves later. but the underwritting is unavoidable if we want to avoid a crisis in the payments system.
the central bank has no choice, since individual banks cannot predict or extracate themselves from system wide liquidity shortfalls, since one part of the system cant cover the shortfalls of another part of the system,and in the case of liquidity excesses, the central bank must intervene to prevent short term interest rates reaching zero bid.
as for capital adequacy, well its a murky business, especially given the off balance sheet assett transfers to spe’s(special purpose entities), and the securitisation of a banks assett base off balance sheet, in order to preserve capital, and bypass capital adequacy requirments.
i think the former wiz kids at enron or their cousins at lehmans, might have a better handle on explaining all the accounting chicanery.
Please help me: I do not understand the first sentence just below the first table: “Notice that nominal GDP remains constant across the two years”. In table I read for year 1 1000 and for year 2 1100; should it not rather be the nom. aggr. demand that remains constant?
I am afraid people need to be much more careful handling statistics.
The table below (taken from Household Income and Household Distribution – Australia, 2007-08, ABS catalogue number 6523.0) has been cited as offering evidence that empirical data do not support the conclusion that:
“Money lended (sic) will always make the rich richer and poor poorer as the bubble rises into credit orgies.” (John Prentice, #82)
S1. Income inequality, 1994-95 and 2007-08
94-95 07-08
Income share % %
Lowest quintile 7.9 7.6
Second quintile 12.8 12.7
Third quintile 17.7 17.4
Fourth quintile 23.7 22.9
Highest quintile 37.8 39.4
Percentile ratios
P90/P10 3.78 4.11
P80/P20 2.56 2.54
P80/P50 1.55 1.53
P20/P50 0.61 0.60
The table does show that the rich got richer (ironically supporting half of John Prentice’s claim) and it also shows that the poor are getting a relatively smaller slice of the cake (not necessarily an absolutely smaller slice: i.e. less money, thus neither completely supporting, but absolutely not contradicting John Prentice’s claim).
To see why the rich are getting a larger proportional slice, just notice that the proportion of the total income that the Highest quintile (that is, the 20% top incomes) grew from 37.8% to 39.4% of the total (that’s the last row, just before Percentile ratios), while the proportion of the total income going to the remaining 80% of households fell from 62.2% (=23.7+17.7+12.8+7.9) to 60.6%.
To explain the meaning of the percentile ratios, it’s easier with an example: P90/P10 in 94-95 is 3.78, meaning that in 1994-95 a household in the top 10% (90=100-10) incomes earned 3.78 times the same income as a household in the lowest 10% incomes; in 2007-08 they earned 4.11 times as much.
In other terms: under a neo-conservative Government the rich definitely got richer. John Prentice does not appear to be too far off the mark.
I will not bother going through the details of the methodology, as it would take way too much time. Suffice it to say that there are a few details rather unclear.
For instance, income as defined by ABS does not include capital gains (I imagine I don’t need to explain why this affects the distribution of incomes). A more technical observation is that the equivalising coefficients used by ABS are different from the OECD standard. In other OECD countries similar measures of disposable income, also unlike those produced by ABS, are net of housing payments, which we have already seen can be quite high for the lowest earning households.
A similar conclusion, referring now to net wealth instead of incomes, can be reached through other means, as well. For those with the inclination, check Table 2 Changes in Real Net Worth Distribution, 2003-04 to 2005-06. (Household wealth and wealth distribution. 2006. ABS catalogue number: 6554.0. Summary of Findings. If you download the PDF file, it is on page 6).
Independent research confirms those findings, too. Check for instance “The Distribution of Top Incomes in Australia”, by A. B. Atkinson and Andrew Leigh, discussion paper no. 514, March 2006. (The Australian National University, Centre for Economic Policy Research). If you check this paper, keep in mind the researchers use ATO data, unlike the ABS, that uses survey data, and they consider gross household incomes, instead of disposable incomes.
PS: I hope the table actually resembles a table, as I am writing in a monospaced font.
Yes, thanks Fredi, another typo that I’ll amend.
Hi Steve.
John Mauldin has just picked your last two posts.
He has the same reservations as I do about doubling counting in the data.
I can’t reconcile your data with the June edition of the Flow of Funds data.
Is it possible you can publish the US data you used in the “What Bernanke doesn’t understand about deflation” post.
Cheers.
Tim.
Hi LightsOut,
yes, I’ve just had that referred to me by Gerard Minack, and I’ve dropped John a quick thanks.
I add together Household, Farm, NonFarm, Financial and non-financial debt to get that figure–because the base FoF figure included what appears to be foreign debt to the USA in the USA’s own debt. But since this causes quite some confusion, I’ll amend it and put up a different table.
The key reason why I’m not double counting is that my definition of aggregate demand includes expenditure to buy existing assets, which isn’t counted as part of GDP (for the obvious reason that it isn’t) but which is financed by the change in debt.
Hi Steve.
Thanks for the clarification.
Thought you might be interested in this BIS paper as a possible way of calibrating your circuit model.
http://docs.docstoc.com/orig/589193/ea681a17-17e4-472e-aa6e-3c8a629ed376.pdf