What Bernanke doesn’t understand about deflation
on August 29th, 2010 at 10:54 amBernanke’s recent Jackson Hole speech didn’t contain one reference to the key force driving the American economy right now: private sector deleveraging (here’s the previous year’s speech for comparison’s sake). The reason the US economy is not recovering from this crisis is because all sectors of American society took on too much debt during the false boom of the last two decades, and they are now busily getting themselves out of debt any way they can.
Debt reduction is now the real story of the American economy, just as real story behind the apparent free lunch of the last two decades was rising debt. The secret that has completely eluded Bernanke is that aggregate demand is the sum of GDP plus the change in debt. So when debt is rising demand exceeds what it could be on the basis of earned incomes alone, and when debt is falling the opposite happens.
I’ve been banging the drum on this for years now, but it’s a hard idea to communicate because it’s so alien to the way most economists (and many people) think. For a start, it involves a redefinition of aggregate demand. Most economists are conditioned to think of commodity markets and asset markets as two separate spheres, but my definition lumps them together: aggregate demand is the sum of expenditure on goods and services, PLUS the net amount of money spent buying assets (shares and property) on the secondary markets. This expenditure is financed by the sum of what we earn from productive activities (largely wages and profits) PLUS the change in our debt levels. So total demand in the economy is the sum of GDP plus the change in debt.
I’ve recently developed a simple numerical example that makes this case easier to understand: imagine an economy with a nominal GDP of $1,000 billion which is growing at 10 percent a year, due to an inflation rate of 5 percent and a real growth rate of 5 percent, and in which private debt is $1,250 billion and is growing at 20% a year.
Aggregate private sector demand in this economy—expenditure on all markets, including asset markets—is therefore $1,250 billion: $1,000 billion from expenditure from income (GDP) and $250 billion from the change in debt. At the end of the year, private debt will be $1,500 billion. Expenditure is thus 20 percent above the level that could be financed by income alone.
Now imagine that the following year, the rate of growth of GDP continues at 10 percent, but the rate of growth of debt slows from 20 to 10 percent. GDP will have grown to $1,100 billion, while the increase in private debt this year will be $150 billion—10 percent of the initial $1,500 billion total and therefore $100 billion less than the $250 billion increase the year before.
Aggregate private sector demand in this economy will therefore be $1,250 billion, consisting of $1,100 billion from GDP and $150 billion from rising debt—exactly the same as the year before. But since inflation has been running at 5 percent, aggregate demand will be 5 percent lower than the year before in real terms. So simply stabilising the debt to GDP ratio results in a fall in demand in real terms, and some markets—commodities and/or assets—must take a hit.
Putting this example in a table, we get the following illustration:
| Variable/Year | Year 1 | Year 2 |
| Nominal GDP | 1000 | 1100 |
| Growth rate of Nominal GDP | 10% | 10% |
| Real growth rate | 5% | 5% |
| Inflation Rate | 5% | 5% |
| Private Debt | 1250 | 1500 |
| Growth rate of Private Debt | 20% | 10% |
| Change in Private Debt | 250 | 150 |
| Nominal Aggregate demand (GDP + Change in Debt) | 1250 | 1250 |
Notice that nominal aggregate demand remains constant across the two years–but this means that real output has to fall, since half of the recorded growth in nominal GDP is inflation. So even stabilising the debt to GDP ratio causes a fall in real aggregate demand. Some markets–whether they’re for goods and services or assets like shares and property–have to take a hit.
Now let’s apply this to the US economy for the last few years, in somewhat more detail. There are some rough edges to the following table—the year to year changes put some figures out of whack, and some change in debt is simply compounding of unpaid interest that doesn’t add to aggregate demand—but in the spirit of “I’d rather be roughly right than precisely wrong”, at your leisure please work your way through the table below.
Its key point can be grasped just by considering the GDP and the change in debt for the two years 2008 and 2010: in 2007-2008, GDP was $14.3 trillion while the change in private sector debt was $4 trillion, so aggregate private sector demand was $18.3 trillion. In calendar year 2009-10, GDP was $14.5 trillion, but the change in debt was minus $1.9 trillion, so that aggregate private sector demand was $12.6 trillion. The turnaround in two years in the change of debt has literally sucked almost $6 trillion out of the US economy.
| Variable\Year | 2006 | 2007 | 2008 | 2009 | 2010 |
| GDP | 12,915,600 | 13,611,500 | 14,337,900 | 14,347,300 | 14,453,800 |
| Change in Nominal GDP | 6.3% | 5.4% | 5.3% | 0.1% | 0.7% |
| Change in Real GDP | 2.7% | 2.4% | 2.5% | -1.9% | 0.1% |
| Inflation Rate | 4.0% | 2.1% | 4.3% | 0.0% | 2.6% |
| Private Debt | 33,196,817 | 36,553,385 | 40,596,586 | 42,045,481 | 40,185,976 |
| Debt Growth Rate | 9.6% | 10.1% | 11.1% | 3.6% | -4.4% |
| Change in Debt | 2,914,187 | 3,356,568 | 4,043,201 | 1,448,895 | -1,859,505 |
| GDP + Change in Private Debt | 15,829,787 | 16,968,068 | 18,381,101 | 15,796,195 | 12,594,295 |
| Change in Private Aggregate Demand | 0.0% | 7.2% | 8.3% | -14.1% | -20.3% |
| Government Debt | 6,556,391.0 | 6,893,467.0 | 7,321,592.0 | 8,615,051.0 | 10,167,585.0 |
| Change in Government Debt | 478,851.0 | 337,076.0 | 428,125.0 | 1,293,459.0 | 1,552,534.0 |
| GDP + Change in Total Debt | 16,308,638.0 | 17,305,144.0 | 18,809,226.0 | 17,089,654.0 | 14,146,829.0 |
| Change in Total Aggregate Demand | 0.0% | 6.1% | 8.7% | -9.1% | -17.2% |
That sucking sound will continue for many years, because the level of debt that was racked up under Bernanke’s watch, and that of his predecessor Alan Greenspan, was truly enormous. In the years from 1987, when Greenspan first rescued the financial system from its own follies, till 2009 when the US hit Peak Debt, the US private sector added $34 trillion in debt. Over the same period, the USA’s nominal GDP grew by a mere $9 trillion.
Ignoring this growth in debt—championing it even in the belief that the financial sector was being clever when in fact it was running a disguised Ponzi Scheme—was the greatest failing of the Federal Reserve and its many counterparts around the world.
Though this might beggar belief, there is nothing sinister in Bernanke’s failure to realize this: it’s a failing that he shares in common with the vast majority of economists. His problem is the theory he learnt in high school and university that he thought was simply “economics”—as if it was the only way one could think about how the economy operated. In reality, it was “Neoclassical economics”, which is just one of the many schools of thought within economics. In the same way that Christianity is not the only religion in the world, there are other schools of thought in economics. And just as different religions have different beliefs, so too do schools of thought within economics—only economists tend to call their beliefs “assumptions” because this sounds more scientific than “beliefs”.
Let’s call a spade a spade: two of the key beliefs of the Neoclassical school of thought are now coming to haunt Bernanke—because they are false. These are that the economy is (almost) always in equilibrium, and that private debt doesn’t matter.
One of Bernanke’s predecessors who also once believed these two things was Irving Fisher, and just like Bernanke, he was originally utterly flummoxed when the US economy collapsed from prosperity to Depression back in 1930. But ultimately he came around to a different way of thinking that he christened “The Debt Deflation Theory of Great Depressions” (Fisher 1933).
You would think Bernanke, as the alleged expert on the Great Depression—after all, that’s one of the main reasons he got the job as Chairman of the Federal Reserve—had read Fisher’s papers. And you’d be right. But the problem is that he didn’t understand them—and here we come back to the belief problem. The Great Depression forced Fisher—who was also a Neoclassical economist—to realize that the belief that the economy was always in equilibrium was false. When Bernanke read Fisher, he completely failed to grasp this point. Just as a religious scholar from, for example, the Hindu tradition might completely miss the key points in the Christian Bible, Bernanke didn’t even register how important abandoning the belief in equilibrium was to Fisher.
To know this, all you have to do is read Bernanke’s summary of Fisher in his Essays on the Great Depression:
The idea of debt-deflation goes back to Irving Fisher (1933). Fisher envisioned a dynamic process in which falling asset and commodity prices created pressure on nominal debtors, forcing them into distress sales of assets, which in turn led to further price declines and financial difficulties. His diagnosis led him to urge President Roosevelt to subordinate exchange-rate considerations to the need for reflation, advice that (ultimately) FDR followed.
Fisher’s idea was less influential in academic circles, though, because of the counterargument that debt-deflation represented no more than a redistribution from one group (debtors) to another (creditors). Absent implausibly large differences in marginal spending propensities among the groups, it was suggested, pure redistributions should have no significant macroeconomic effects. ” (Bernanke 2000, p. 24)
There’s no mention of disequilibrium there, and though Bernanke went on to try to develop the concept of debt-deflation, he did so while maintaining the belief in equilibrium. Compare this to Fisher himself on how important disequilibrium really is in the real world:
We may tentatively assume that, ordinarily and within wide limits, all, or almost all, economic variables tend, in a general way, toward a stable equilibrium… But the exact equilibrium thus sought is seldom reached and never long maintained. New disturbances are, humanly speaking, sure to occur, so that, in actual fact, any variable is almost always above or below the ideal equilibrium…
It is as absurd to assume that, for any long period of time, the variables in the economic organization, or any part of them, will “stay put,” in perfect equilibrium, as to assume that the Atlantic Ocean can ever be without a wave. (Fisher 1933, p. 339)
We might not be in such a pickle now if economics had started to become more of a science and less of a religion by following Fisher’s lead, and abandoning key beliefs when reality made a mockery of them. But instead neoclassical economics completely rebuilt its belief system after the Great Depression, and here we are again, once more experiencing the disconnect between neoclassical beliefs and economic reality.
For the record, here’s my “GDP plus change in debt” table for the 1930s, to give us some idea of what the next decade or so might hold if, once again, we repeat the mistakes of our predecessors.
| Variable\Year | 1929 | 1930 | 1931 | 1932 | 1933 | 1934 | 1935 |
| GDP | 103,600 | 91,200 | 76,500 | 58,700 | 56,400 | 66,000 | 73,300 |
| Change in Nominal GDP | 6.0% | -12.0% | -16.1% | -23.3% | -3.9% | 17.0% | 11.1% |
| Inflation Rate | -1.2% | 0.0% | -7.0% | -10.1% | -9.8% | 2.3% | 3.0% |
| Private Debt | 161,800 | 161,100 | 148,400 | 137,100 | 127,900 | 125,300 | 124,500 |
| Debt Growth Rate | 3.7% | -0.4% | -7.9% | -7.6% | -6.7% | -2.0% | -0.6% |
| Change in Debt | 5,700 | -700 | -12,700 | -11,300 | -9,200 | -2,600 | -800 |
| GDP + Change in Private Debt | 109,300 | 90,500 | 63,800 | 47,400 | 47,200 | 63,400 | 72,500 |
| Change in Private Aggregate Demand | 0.0% | -17.2% | -29.5% | -25.7% | -0.4% | 34.3% | 14.4% |
| Government Debt | 30,100 | 31,200 | 34,500 | 37,900 | 40,600 | 46,300 | 50,500 |
| Change in Government Debt | -100 | 1,100 | 3,300 | 3,400 | 2,700 | 5,700 | 4,200 |
| GDP + Change in Total Debt | 109,200 | 91,600 | 67,100 | 50,800 | 49,900 | 69,100 | 76,700 |
| Change in Total Aggregate Demand | 0.0% | -16.1% | -26.7% | -24.3% | -1.8% | 38.5% | 11.0% |
Bernanke, B. S. (2000). Essays on the Great Depression. Princeton, Princeton University Press.
Fisher, I. (1933). “The Debt-Deflation Theory of Great Depressions.” Econometrica
1(4): 337-357.
Click here to download this post as a PDF file.



I’ll have to use such work when I start my PhD, once I finish off my masters. The pharmaceutical industry (what I’m studying) is a classic example of an industry with firms that can’t function if P=MC=MR due to high fixed costs (R&D) but low marginal costs (medicine production).
In the neoclassical literature, I’ve seen the way that they attempt to deal with this contradiction by explaining it in terms of informational issues: its a public good, firms don’t have an incentive to produce it, free-riding, spillovers, etc. They even get to the point where they realize that the industry has high fixed costs/low marginal costs but never do they attempt to square this industry structure with neoclassical models because it is an outright falsification as Blinder et al. noticed with industries across the board.
The anecdotal evidence has been around since the late 19th century with the same sort of structure present within the railroads. The economist Michael Perelman has documented a great deal of this evidence but you have provided the economic modeling that actually describes the real world.
Steve,
I wonder if the crux of Bernanke’s blindness is similar to the one that Soddy drew attention to. That is that debts between individuals and private banks is not strictly a transfer / exchange. Money does indeed change hands in these relationships but essentially a bank does not give something up in exchange for originating a loan (it creates in from thin air).
Most people make a similar mental confusion. They presume that for every loan in existence there is an equivalent set of savings and these two elements cancel each other out.
Soddy shows that this is fundamentally flawed. With so much debt floating about at the moment what is actually backing it up? Housing & infrastructure and production capacity maybe to some extent but this does not explain the sheer dearth of credit. Most of these assets are actually of pretty shoddy quality and were not built to last!
The GFC is a shuddering realisation of this fundamental truth. Zombie private debts are being transfered to zombie treasury debt, and from there to zombie currency until the fiat experiment collapses.
Exactly Hawkeye. You’re not the first to recommend Soddy to me, but the first to point out this aspect of his thought. I hope I’ll finally have time to read him next year.
Hawkeye the Zombie loans goes into Zombie deposits, which go into Zombie loans in a crazy feedback loop that causes the whole system to run away – soon to collapse completely.
My main objection to Bernanke’s work is that he appears to have no way of taking the passing time into account and as a consequence has no way of even being aware of feedback caused instability. He can only work in the zombie money domain.
The “general equilibrium” on which the neoclassical’s base their whole flaky theory is never proven and they do not even declare what type of equilibrium they are hoping for, unconditional, stable, or unstable. To use the word “equilibrium” without declaring a type is just plain double speak reducing it to a weasel word nothing more.
For them the passage of time and feedback effects are unknown unknowns. To them the mathematics needed to truly understand what is going on is beyond their small understanding.
Our leaders need to start listening to Steve Keen and the small band of competent economists who have been predicting the problem for quite some time and have been proven correct while a huge failure by the neoclassicals has been totally ignored.
Hawkeye,
This is indeed the crux.
“Most people make a similar mental confusion. They presume that for every loan in existence there is an equivalent set of savings and these two elements cancel each other out.”
I’ve been practicing a way of thinking uncluttered by theory, to see if I can see what is really happening, working in the heart of finance also helps.
It could be that most people think that because at the transaction level this is actually what happens. A bank won’t lend if they don’t have capital to cover, when they give you 1 million dollars to buy a house that’s -1m that must come out some account and that account has to have a positive balance. So for the retail stuff it’s more of a case of warehousing wholesale funding and distributing retail, so its a distribution operation. When it’s wholesale to wholesale, the funding arrangement are put in place to match the deal. But the point is that capital has to be there.
So the theory proposed by Steve Keen as far as I understand is that this loan ends up as a deposit somewhere else and this deposit becomes the capital for another loan so you can just keep making money this way. Sure system wise it might actually work like that, particularly with interbank lending facilities.
But let’s not go to extremes and envisage a system where money is created at the press of a button out of thin air, there is a lot more to it than that, and at the transaction level for every loan in existence there indeed exists some form of saving which cancels that out.
In terms of what is backing up the debt. Take a homeloan, there are two things backing up that debt, the contractual obligation of the debtor to make regular payments and the value of the home. The problem with the loans that caused the GFC was that the contractual obligation was unfeasible and the expectation of the value of the home was that it would keep rising which covered the shortcoming of the contractual obligation.
Why did the lenders allow this to happen. It’s because of the way risk management is viewed. Even for the most credit worthy debtor, there is never 100% certainty that the loan will be repaid, becuase you never know what’s around the corner. But what is fairly reliable, is that you can get a pretty good approximation of what percentage of the loans will indeed be repaid, based on the profile of the debtors. This approach is dangerous in the wrong hands, you can convince a lender using this argument that yes a large percentage of these loans are not expected to be repaid, but this is compensated by a large interest rate and the recovery rate is high because prices only go up. I think it’s a case of when a little bit of knowledge in the wrong hands can be dangerous. A bit like people who have learnt a bit of arithmetic and they are so pleased with their skill they think they know better than everyone else becuase they did some calculations, and the numbers don’t lie.
Truth,
“In terms of what is backing up the debt. Take a homeloan, there are two things backing up that debt, the contractual obligation of the debtor to make regular payments and the value of the home”
And Tier 1 capital.
The fact is, a banks capital ratio is the main constraint from creating money “out of thin air”. However the process is more insidious that that.
The creation of the loan, and resulting saving is manufactured back into bank equity via an accounting entry
Dr Savings
Cr Equity
This is does once a loan book reaches a certain size and is executed via your frendly Investment bank who charges a fee for the privilige. The capital will always be there to recapitalise the bank, because it is the sister child of the loan which was created by the bank in the first place.
(ok, now I’m starting to get a headache)
What the ‘saver’ does not realise is that the return on loan is collapsing as debt increases because of increasing bad debts and lower bank margins – this puts his/her deposit at risk, and will probably wipe out their equity.
This line of thinking is actually quite liberating. I really enjoy this blog.
yes bb, ok, but take one step back, the money has to be there in the first place for the transaction to clear. The bank is transferring the principle into someone’s account, they certainly can’t do that out of ‘thin air’.
Treasury Department working hard to give the public perception Tony Abott is a uneducated and dumb down individual when comes to economic budget matters.
Treasury Department are calling the kettle black they themselves put many naive Australians into unsustainable debt thanks to the suckers first home buyers boost.
Mr Katter for once is not in the usual neurotic rant, Mr Katter really makes sense more competition in food retailing Coles and Woolworths giant duo monolopy must be wipe out.
Mr Katter right on “you cannot eat broadband”.
Bob must be listening to real voters for once, as for the intellectual elite who think giant monolopies works well because of lower capital costs please watch the video Enron “The Smartest Guys In The Room”
TruthIsThereIsNoTruth & bb
It can not create money instantaneously out of “thin air” but as time passes the money is deposited in a bank account and then becomes available for the banking system to loan again (and again). If you do not consider time there is no way that you can understand what is happening let alone mathematically model it.
The “value” of the capital used to secure these loans is being created by nothing more than the inflationary effect of this spurious (even parasitic) credit. If you fully understand what is going on you can see that, falls in value will reduce the amount of credit that the banks create, and this will reduce the values further with the same feedback loop driving prices down.
This is a classical positive (runaway) feedback loop. Such a loop is used in your computer to keep the computer’s internal clock running.
But should we be wanting the economy to oscillate?
TruthIsThereIsNoTruth:
“The bank is transferring the principle into someone’s account, they certainly can’t do that out of ‘thin air’.”
The bank doesn’t need to have the principal to transfer the amount to someone’s account in another bank. All the bank need to do is to ‘borrow’ that principal from the other bank.
The interest it pays to the other bank will be less than the interest it receives from the borrower. This difference (or the spread) is the bank’s profit.
Viola! Money created from thin air!
Am I right, Steve?
Truth /Brightspark,
I’m not sure I agree with you.
Many years ago when i worked in the overnight money markets, I was required to read a book called “Fast Money” by Edna Carew. Explained the banking system very well – not sure if there is an updated copy today.
basically, it explained that once a loan is created and transfered (spent) the banking system clears all funds overnight. The next day the central bank calculates the positions of each bank (some in surplus some in deficit). The deficits are for the banks who created net loans the day prior.
The banks have until 9:00am the next day to balance the books. This is acheived via interbank lending. So the loan becomes the deposit almost immediately.
Sometimes the whole system is in deficit – usually a day after the payment of tax receipts to the Government (RBA). The RBA then conducts open market operations (OMO) to help the system square away the deficits buy buying back short term goverment paper. It does the opposite when the system is in surplus (welfare payments etc).
Thats how it use to work. Probably far quicker today.
It is on that basis I make the claim “creating money instantaneously out of thin air”.
Daltica,
Clear your mind, forget all you know for a minute…
“The bank doesn’t need to have the principal to transfer the amount to someone’s account in another bank. All the bank need to do is to ‘borrow’ that principal from the other bank.”
Yes – but that money that’s borrowed from the other bank has to be sitting in the account on the same day that the principle is forwarded to the debtor, not exactly thin air.
Yes – the money is made on spread. It’s a money shop, buy cheap wholesale, sell retail at a margin. It’s not a free ride on the economy, because in order of importance:
1. the institution is a risk sink to the economy (when it is done correctly like in Australia, clearly not the US where the banks became the sources of risk)
2. the activities are supportive by a very efficient administrative infrastructure
3. theoretically it is a redistribution of capital to where it is needed from where it is not needed.
On point 3, unfortunately the policies are such that a lot of this capital is needed by people to buy expensive real estate, but in the current policy configuration this is where this capital is needed, objectively speaking… At the same time Australia’s current economic growth is very infrastructure capital intensive, which is a very very good thing.
bb,
indeed the ON account is used to cover marginal ON liquidity deficit or surplus, and the short term interbank money market achieves the same purpose in the <3m term. But, 30y loans are not funded by rolling over the ON account 10000 times, this would not be economic and the risk profile would not make sense, home loan rates would have to be huge. As I said before, this potentially allows for credit creation, but from a practical point of view it is used for liquidity and still every loan is covered by real deposits, trust me. It is public knowledge if you look in the right places that it is a fact that Aussie banks funding is always way ahead of time, in other words the capital is there a good time margin before it is actually needed. There is no way that banks would run so close to the precipice that they relied on the ON and interbank accounts to fund their long term loan liquidity requirement, from a practical perspective this kind of thinking is CRAZY. So what you and other bloggers are suggesting is that the financial system in Australia has lost their marbles, so in reply – how do you think they've kept this going as long as they have and through the largest liquidity crisis in history which leveled all the biggest banks in the world. Look to Australia to learn how things should be done, don't criticise unless you know the critical details.
TITINT:
“Yes – but that money that’s borrowed from the other bank has to be sitting in the account on the same day that the principle is forwarded to the debtor”
I’m not sure about that point. From what bb mentioned, that don’t have to be. This is what I think happens:
- Tom’s bank is Westpac and Dick’s bank is NAB.
- Tom buys a house from Dick for $500k
- Tom borrows $500k from Westpac.
- Westpac creates an entry in its books for $500k in Tom’s account.
- Westpac now owes $500k to NAB.
- Overnight, there’s this sausage-making process of squaring up the books involving the RBA.
- Westpac now has a deficit of $500k to NAB.
- Westpac borrows $500k from NAB.
- NAB creates an account in its books for Westpac, while at the same time, creates an account in its books for Dick.
The end result is this: Tom owes Westpac, Westpac owes NAB, NAB owes Dick. In Dick’s account, he ‘has’ $500k of cash in the bank.
To add further:
The end result is Day X + 1 after the loan is made. Sometime later, Westpac may prowl the overseas money market to finance the $500k and return that to NAB?
Sorry, I mean “return to NAB”
Truth,
“But, 30y loans are not funded by rolling over the ON account 10000 times”
I never made such a suggestion – nor implied it. I only said that a loan and a deposit are created simutaneously. What you are refering to is not liquidity, but capital management which is an important part of a banks function, but seperate to the point I was making.
“There is no way that banks would run so close to the precipice that they relied on the ON and interbank accounts to fund their long term loan liquidity requirement, from a practical perspective this kind of thinking is CRAZY.”
I agree. Which I why i never made such an assertion. The overnight cash position of a NAB would be say $300m at a maximum. This compares to a loan book of 100′s billions. Overtime, the short term funding is termed out via the domestics capital markets (or the 144a’s in the USA).
“So what you and other bloggers are suggesting is that the financial system in Australia has lost their marbles”
I never made such an assertion.
“Look to Australia to learn how things should be done, don’t criticise unless you know the critical details”
Please read my comments properly before preaching….
FWIW, I beleive the Aussie financial regulatory system is a model for the rest of the world. I also beleive the core problems lies in the non-bank financial institutions rather than the heavily regulated domestic banks. The GCF has its roots in leverage – but poor regulation in the US is also to blame…..
How Financial instututions like Lehman, Morgan Stanley and Goldman Saches could ever call themselves a bank is beyond me.
BB & TINTT
One thing Aussie banks had in their favour was that they had a helluva fright in the early 90′s Westpac in particular. My own belief is that the RBA not having the same structure as the US FED is also a blessing. We have to rememeber though that the governments timely assistance packages and guarantees have assisted them as well.
bb,
you didn’t assert those points as much as others, but my read was that you implied them.
Mainly you seem to be saying that the credit creation process is facilitated by the short term liquidity markets including the ON account.
What I am saying is that to some extent this may be true, but in general as a golden rule any long term capital commitments are matched by capital before the commitment is made. If you did not do this you are running a funding risk, so you and others are suggesting that a bank creates a loan, covers it with short term liquidity and only then goes out and gets the funding – NO WAY this happens, this is exactly what would be insane from a risk management perspective. The ON and liquidity book is used for market trading activity where there is a lot of cashflow volatility, not for creating home loans.
bb
The daily reconciliations that you are describing would seem to be prohibiting “creating money out of thin air”, but that is not how the credit inflation happens. The loans return some time later as deposits, there is a delay. The banks then create the credit some time later and this adds another delay. The apparent “value” of the securing assets also takes time to rise. Time must be factored into any attempt to understand what is going on, daily reconciliations are almost irrelevant and do nothing to control the situation.
The effect of time cannot be avoided, and they are being ignored at our long term peril.
The point is that the banking system as a whole (not a single commercial bank but all the banks + the Reserve Bank) creates money ex nihilo if suitable (or unsuitable as in the US) real assets can be found and there is demand for credit.
It is not exactly creation out of thin air however the feedback loop works in such a way that the more money is poured into the asset markets the more assets suitable as collaterals are worth (asset-price inflation). Another feedback loop with an integrator (like the virtual “1/s” in a phase-locked loop) increases the size of bank capital as more money is created (the equity of banks is increased by the integral of the spread multiplied by the size of the balance sheet minus the losses). Therefore there is no inbuilt limit to the growth of the amount of M3 – except for the inability of the whole economy to support the income redistribution caused by the rising indebtness. The pace of growth is limited but not the size.
I would still insist on analysing the systemic impact of money hoarding that is putting and holding money as deposits in banks rather than spending – what I mentioned yesterday. This is exactly the factor suppressing the CPI inflation despite the growth of the mountain of debt. Not every dollar created by the banking system is spent on buying new products or services (what includes investment). However for every dollar of debt there must be a dollar of deposits or bank equity somewhere in the system.
#162 BrightSpark1
The “value” of the capital used to secure these loans is being created by nothing more than the inflationary effect of this spurious (even parasitic) credit.
I agree
Credit = money
rapid growth in credit = money inflation
We observe the credit money inflation effect in the house price/GDP ratio which is 2 – 3X historical in Australia
The Fx market is a short term voting machine and trades on the interest differentials ~ carry trade
The Fx market long term weights the relative credit money inflation
Truth,
I will say it one more time. I never suggested / implied / inferred banks permantlty fund home loans via the ON market. This is a clearing mechanism only. Over time the banks term-out their short term lioabilities via various capital markets.
All i said is a loan and a deposit is created simutaneously. The money is created to the extent it is allowed under the specific banks capital adequacy ratio – tier 1 / tier 2 capital.
BrightSpark1
“The loans return some time later as deposits, there is a delay.”
Where do they sit while we all wait for the deposit to show up?
If a bank creates a loan, and there is no deposit, how can the balance sheet balance?
Please help with the following accounting entry.
Dr Loan book (bank asset)
Cr ???
forgive me bb, I thought this is what you implied in the following statement where you seem to be suggesting that loans are cleared using ON and interbank markets, which as I said is true to some degree, but only some degree:
“I’m not sure I agree with you.
Many years ago when i worked in the overnight money markets, I was required to read a book called “Fast Money” by Edna Carew. Explained the banking system very well – not sure if there is an updated copy today.
basically, it explained that once a loan is created and transfered (spent) the banking system clears all funds overnight. The next day the central bank calculates the positions of each bank (some in surplus some in deficit). The deficits are for the banks who created net loans the day prior.
The banks have until 9:00am the next day to balance the books. This is acheived via interbank lending. So the loan becomes the deposit almost immediately.”